Would you consider the function f(x) = x times 0 to not be reversible?

Actually, I do consider it non-reversible (if there is such a term).

Consider: given the function f(x) = x * 0, we are effectively deriving the value of f(x) from the value of x. This is pretty standard.

In order to reverse the function (i.e. to derive x from a given value of f(x)), then we solve as follows:

x = f(x) / 0

which is undefined by our accepted rules of algebra. Even if the value of f(x) were given as zero, the inverse equation becomes x = 0/0, which is indeterminate, so again we cannot derive a value for x.

So in the case of the given function f(x) = x * 0, while the given function is valid and can be solved for any real value of x (in fact is a constant function with value 0), we cannot invert and derive the value of x given the value of f(x).

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"When I say something, I put my name next to it." -- Isaac Jaffe, "Sports Night"

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