|
|
|
| Authored by: Anonymous on Wednesday, February 06 2013 @ 01:35 PM EST |
So if the cost of the components exceed the cost of device,
then is the sum cost of any other patents, including any software-related ones,
zero?
If the cost of the components exceeds the cost of the
device, then all that is left for the rest is a negative cost, ie the "owners"
of the rest bits are actually paying the device manufacturer to include their
stuff.
Though if cost of the components exceed the cost of the device, then
some of them must have a negative cost, ie the original owner of said components
have paid to have them included. [ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
|
| |
| Authored by: ukjaybrat on Wednesday, February 06 2013 @ 01:57 PM EST |
So if the cost of the components exceed the cost of device,
then
is the sum cost of any other patents, including any
software-related ones,
zero?
not necessarily. The price one puts on the device is not
related to how much money they put into a device.
Without breaking out the
exact numbers/details, Google sells
its Nexus devices at near cost and Apple
sells them such
that only ~30% of your money covers the cost to build the
device.
So Apple makes more per phone sold, but both smartphones
use ~200,000 patents. according to your theory those patents
would be worth
more if owned by apple (I guess that would be
their theory too).---
IANAL [ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
|
- Profit matters - Authored by: Anonymous on Wednesday, February 06 2013 @ 04:27 PM EST
- Profit matters - Authored by: Anonymous on Wednesday, February 06 2013 @ 04:35 PM EST
|
|
|
|
