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How can they be subject to US laws? | 115 comments | Create New Account
Comments belong to whoever posts them. Please notify us of inappropriate comments.
Because the US says so.
Authored by: Crocodile_Dundee on Thursday, December 06 2012 @ 06:41 PM EST
The US has a long history of believing that violation of its laws by a
non-citizen, in a foreign country can be punished by its courts.

I think this is an example that it should try to keep it that way and not try to
get foreign courts as a dance partner.

The typical tactic it to strong-arm governments into signing "trade"
agreements which include "harmonisation" of laws. Oddly enough the
harmony is achieved by changing the laws only of one country... (And typically
don't confer reciprocal powers).

My government is as guilty as many of doing this.

I prefer NZ's approach.

---
---
That's not a law suit. *THIS* is a law suit!

[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]

How can they be subject to US laws?
Authored by: Anonymous on Thursday, December 06 2012 @ 10:19 PM EST
That's a good question. No, I don't know the proper answer. I can only
observe that established practice (case law?) allows them to be
charged and arraigned (if catchable) before a judge who then
has the unenviable task of deciding jurisdiction.

[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]

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