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Authored by: Anonymous on Thursday, June 14 2012 @ 01:53 PM EDT |
The concept you state is embodied in:
restricting a sale would
apply to a business relationship
And
a buyer should
not inherently have rights to sell with paid-in-clear licenses and physical
objects
As I understand the concept's you're outlining, they gets
simplified as:
Is it for some type of income, the item being sold in
bulk
or
Is it a personal copy, of very few, by an individual
I
believe the situation the Court will examine is:
A student planned to
generate some extra income by purchasing the books in a lower cost market and
then selling them to fellow students in a higher cost market for a
profit.
Which can reasonably be argued as fitting your first identifer "a
business" rather than the second identifier "a personal sale".
After
all... didn't Michael Dell start out that way? Doing something while in school
to generate an extra income and watching his business grow from
there?
Where do I stand on it? I really can't say. Should such a Law
apply in such a situation? I simply don't know. I'm lacking a lot of
information that would play a role in such a decision including answers to
questions like (but not limited to):
Were the books made in the same
location so manufacturing costs are identical?
Based on the price of
the books in the separate markets: do the "living costs" of the different
markets reflect the difference in price?
RAS[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
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