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Authored by: Anonymous on Tuesday, June 05 2012 @ 12:43 PM EDT |
I wonder why it took so long to issue.
Submarine patent? [ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
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Authored by: Anonymous on Wednesday, June 06 2012 @ 03:49 AM EDT |
Surely if a patent is unpublished and something [apparently] uses the invention
/prior/ to the publication, but *after* the filing date, then the invention must
have been "obvious" (as the implementor had no way to read the patent
and so must have invented the same invention independently and thus the
"Invention" must be "obvious" to one skilled in the art) and
so should be automatically invalidated.
In fact, if the patent is published *after* the usage which occurs /after/ the
initial filing, there is, in my eyes at least, especially with a longer the gap
between filing and publication (and eventual granting), a suspicion (high
probability) that the patent may have been (was) tweaked so as to represent the
implementation - a direct theft of the invention - rather than the invention
using the patent without permission (which how could they if the patent wasn't
published?)[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
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