Caveat: IANAL!
Please point to the section of Copyright Law that would
identify a copy is not legitamit if the import duty is not paid.
That's
the kind of Logic that lead the RIAA to claim "unauthorized =
illegal".
While I would agree not paying an import duty where applicable
would be against the Law... it's not Copyright Law I would it expect it to
infringe upon.
I only speak to the supposed link between having a
legitamit copy according to Copyright Law and paying an import duty.
I
figure if there's any issue, it'll be on the potential Legal aspects of whether
or not the First Sale Doctrine applies to legitamit copies purchased outside the
Country and imported in. Questions that I'd expect to arise are:
Does a
copyright holder have the right to the proceeds from the first sale of
any copy sold for the first time in the Jurisdiction that the
given First Sale Doctrine holds?
Does that only apply when the sale
appears to be more then just a private sale - when it's more like a commercial
sale from a business?
But I seriously doubt an otherwise legal copy becomes
an illegitamit copy simply because import duties weren't paid.
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